50 questions 40 minutes

In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and English spoken. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers. When you take the actual TOEFL test, you will not be allowed to take notes or write in your test book. Try to work on this Model Test in the same way.

Directions: In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

1. Woman: I need some aspirin, please, and I'd also like to get this
prescription filled.

Man: Fine. Here's your aspirin. I can have the prescription for you in about ten minutes.

Narrator: What will the man probably do?

(A) Wait at a drugstore.

(B) Go to a doctor's office.

(C) Find a hospital.

(D) Look for some aspirin.

2. Woman: If I were you I'd take the bus to work. Driving in that rush-hour traffic is terrible.

Man: But by the time the bus gets to my stop, there aren't any seats left.

Narrator: What does the man mean?

(A) He doesn't mind the traffic.

(B) He takes the bus to work.

(C) He has to stand in the bus if he takes it to work.

(D) He wants to ride to work with the woman.

3. Man: If I nominate you for president, will you accept the nomination?

Woman: I really don't have time.

Narrator: What does the woman mean?

(A) She is flattered.

(B) She is not interested.

(C) She is not busy.

(D) She will support the man's nomination.

4. Woman: I'd like to take Dr. Sullivan's section of Physics 100, but my advisor is teaching it too, and I don't want her to be offended.

Man: Who cares?

Narrator: What does the man mean?

(A) The woman should not consider her advisor in the decision.

(B) The woman should not take Dr. Sullivan's section.

(C) The woman's advisor will not be offended.

(D) The woman should not take a physics course.

5. Man: Where are you living now? I went to see you at your old apartment on University Avenue and it was empty.

Woman: I'm living in the city. It's closer to work.

Narrator: What does the woman imply about her old apartment?

(A) It was too far from work.

(B) It was very old.

(C) The school was far away.

(D) The area was not nice.

6. Man: Let's go to the dance at the Student Center on Friday.

Woman: Sounds great, but I'm going to a lecture. Thanks for asking me though.

Narrator: What does the woman imply?

(A) She is not interested in the man.

(B) She does not like lectures.

(C) She would go out with the man on another occasion.

(D) She would rather stay at home.

7. Man: That's a nice bike. Is it new?

Woman: No. I got it almost five years ago, but it's still in good shape.

Narrator: What does the woman mean?

(A) The bike is in good condition.

(B) The man needs to replace the bike.

(C) The bike is missing.

(D) It is a new bike.

8. Man: How much did your books cost? Two hundred dollars?

Woman: I wish!

Narrator: What does the woman mean?

(A) The books were more expensive than two hundred dollars.

(B) She would like to buy the books.

(C) She cannot afford the price of the books.

(D) She has not purchased her books yet.

9. Man: Would you rather eat at home or go out tonight?

Woman: I'd rather go out, but I don't mind fixing supper at home if you'd rather not go.

Narrator: What does the woman want to do?

(A) She wants to fix supper.

(B) She wants to stay at home.

(C) She is not hungry.

(D) She wants to go out.

10. Man: Good afternoon. This is Dick Williams at World Travel Agency. Is Mr. Baker there?

Woman: He's out to lunch. I'll be glad to take a message.

Narrator: What does the woman say about Mr. Baker?

(A) He is at his office.

(B) He is at lunch.

(C) He is at the travel agency.

(D) He is at the bakery.

11. Woman: I'd appreciate your professional opinion. Do you think that I should sue the company?

Man: Not really. I think that we can settle this out of court.

Narrator: What will the woman probably do?

(A) See a lawyer.

(B) Come to an agreement.

(C) Sue the company.

(D) Go to court.

12. Woman: Would you like some hot coffee or tea?

Man: I do like them both, but I'd rather have something cold.

Narrator: What does the man want to drink?

(A) Something cold.

(B) Coffee.

(C) Tea.

(D) Both coffee and tea.

13. Woman: How can I get to the shopping center from here?

Man: You can take a bus or a taxi, but it isn't too far to walk.

Narrator: What does the man suggest the woman do?

(A) Ask directions.

(B) Walk to the shopping center.

(C) Take a taxi.

(D) Wait for the bus.

14. Man: Have you found a class yet?

Woman: I'm just checking the schedule now.

Narrator: What can be inferred about the man?

(A) He does not plan to study.

(B) He has a very busy schedule.

(C) He is lost.

(D) He has not registered yet.

15. Woman: Do you mind if I turn on the radio for a while?

Man: No, I don't mind.

Narrator: What does the man mean?

(A) He does not want to listen to the radio.

(B) He has changed his opinion about turning on the radio.

(C) The radio will not bother him.

(D) The radio is not working very well.

16. Man: I'm worried about Anna. She's really been depressed lately. All she does is stay in her room all day.

Woman: That sounds serious. She'd better see someone at the Counseling Center.

Narrator: What does the woman suggest Anna do?

(A) Stop worrying.

(B) Go out more.

(C) Talk to a friend.

(D) Get counseling.

17. Man: What's this? Another letter from the phone company?

Woman: Oh no. I wonder what we have to do to get that bill corrected?

Narrator: What are the speakers talking about?

(A) A telephone call.

(B) A visit from friends.

(C) A mistake on a bill.

(D) A letter they have written.

18. Woman: If you have a few minutes, I'd like to talk with you about my project.

Man: Please go on.

Narrator: What does the man mean?

(A) He prefers to talk another time.

(B) He wants the woman to go away.

(C) He would like the woman to continue.

(D) He doesn't know what to think.

19. Woman: Excuse me. I was in line here first.

Man: Oh, I'm sorry. I didn't realize that you were waiting.

Narrator: What will the man probably do?

(A) Accept the woman's apology.

(B) Allow the woman to go ahead of him.

(C) Apologize to the woman.

(D) Go to the front of the line.

20. Man: The neighbors are going to have another party.

Woman: Not again!

Narrator: What does the woman imply?

(A) The neighbors have parties often.

(B) She does not like her neighbors.

(C) The neighbors party is disturbing her.

(D) She will not be invited to the neighbors' party.

21. Man: Dr. Franklin said I couldn't have an extension.

Woman: That's too bad. I really thought he would give you one.

Narrator: What does the woman mean?

(A) Dr. Franklin is not very understanding.

(B) The extension was a very bad idea.

(C) She is sorry that the man was denied his request

(D) The professor's answer is not surprising.

22. Man: I can't get my computer printer to work.

Woman: Is it plugged in?

Narrator: What does the woman imply?

(A) The computer needs to be replaced. '

(B) The man should check the plug.

(C) The man should use the printer at work.

(D) The man doesn't know how to use the printer.

23. Man: We missed you at the reception on Saturday.

Woman: Yes. I just didn't feel up to it after such a long trip.

Narrator: What does the woman mean?

(A) She was not capable of making such a long trip.

(B) She did not know about the reception.

(C) She was sorry that she could not attend.

(D) She was not able to go because she was tired.

24. Man: We really should have left already.

Woman: Maybe we ought to call and let them know.

Narrator: What problem do the man and woman have?

(A) They do not have a telephone.

(B) They are late.

(C) They have been left.

(D) They got lost.

25. Man: Have you moved out of your apartment yet?

Woman: No. I'm paid up until the 15th.

Narrator: What is the woman probably going to do?

(A) Pay the rent for half a month.

(B) Help the man move.

(C) Stay where she is living until the 15th.

(D) Move out of the apartment.

26. Woman: Mary Anne took the math placement test.

Man: So, she finally did it!

Narrator: What had the man assumed about Mary Anne?

(A) She had already taken the test.

(B) She did not want to take classes.

(C) She had not taken the placement test.

(D) She would take the math classes later.

27. Woman: I got my car at Discount Automotive.

Man: Good for you. They have some really good deals.

Narrator: What does the man mean?

(A) The man bought his car at Discount Automotive.

(B) The woman has probably made a mistake.

(C) The cars at Discount Automotive are not very reliable.

(D) The prices are very competitive.

28. Woman: Gary said he would be here for my birthday.

Man: But he has to be in Miami that day, doesn't he?

Narrator: What does the man imply about Gary?

(A) He may not be able to come.

(B) He would rather go to Miami.

(C) He is not an honest person.

(D) He doesn't know that the woman is having a birthday.

29. Woman: Where have you been? I haven't seen you in class all week.

Man: I caught cold, so I stayed in.

Narrator: What does the man mean?

(A) The plan is to remain in the class.

(B) It is not comfortable in the classroom.

(C) He has been absent because he was sick.

(D) The weather has been very bad.

30. Man: Let's go get a pizza.

Woman: I'm swamped. Maybe another time.

Narrator: What does the woman mean?

(A) She thinks the pizza place is closed.

(B) She does not like the man.

(C) She is very busy now.

(D) She is not hungry for a pizza.

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write on your test pages.

Questions 31-34. Listen to a conversation between two college students.

Man: Would you like a cup of coffee?

Woman: Yes. That would be good.

Man: Cream and sugar?

Woman: Please.

Man: Oh, no.

Woman: What's the matter?

Man: This machine is out of order.

Woman: Did you lose your money?

Man: I sure did.

Woman: You ought to complain. These machines are always out of order.

Man: Well, I still want a cup of coffee, don't you?

Woman: Let's go to the restaurant at the Student Center.

Man: I don't know. The last time I was there it was so crowded that I had to wait in line for almost an hour.

Woman: Really? Let's go somewhere else then. I can't be too long because I have a test at three o'clock.

Man: Okay. Let's go to the library. There's another vending machine downstairs by the telephone.

Narrator: 31. What prompted the conversation?

(A) The speakers wanted coffee.

(B) The man lost money.

(C) The Student Center was crowded.

(D) The woman needed to make a phone call.

32. What do the speakers mainly discuss?

(A) The time.

(B) The money.

(C) The coffee.

(D) The test.

33. Why didn't the couple go to the restaurant at the Student Center?

(A) They decided that they did not want any coffee.

(B) They thought that the Student Center would be closed.

(C) They thought that the Student Center would be crowded.

(D) The man lost Ms money in the vending machine.

34. Why did they decide to go to the library?

(A) To study for a test.

(B) To use the telephone.

(C) To complain about the vending machine.

(D) To get a cup of coffee from the vending machine.

Questions 35-38. Listen to a conversation with a professor.

Man: Professor Day, may I see you for a minute?

Woman: Sure. Come on in, Mike. What's the matter?

Man: I've got a problem.

Woman: Okay.

Man: I need your technical writing class. And, I knew I had to have it so I went early to registration, but by the time I got to the front of the line, it was closed. See, my advisor signed my course request and everything. I was just too far back in the line.

Woman: That's a big class already, Mike. If it's closed, that means I have fifty students in it.

Man: I'm not surprised. It's supposed to be a really good class.

Woman: Can't you take it next year? We offer it every fall.

Man: Well, that's the problem. I'm supposed to be graduating this spring. But, of course, I can't graduate without your class.

Woman: I see. In that case, I'll sign an override for you. It looks like there will be fifty-one. Take this form back to the registration area and they'll get you in.

Man: Thanks, Professor Day. I really appreciate this!

Narrator: 35. What is Mike's problem?

(A) He was late arriving at registration.

(B) He needs an advisor's signature on a course request form.

(C) He is not doing well in the class because it is so large.

(D) He must have the permission of the instructor to enroll in a class.

36. What does Mike want Professor Day to do?

(A) Help him with the class.

(B) Explain some technical vocabulary.

(C) Give him special permission to take the class.

(D) Take a form to the registration area.

37. What does Mike say about graduation?

(A) He has planned to graduate in the fall.

(B) He has to take Professor Day's class in order to graduate.

(C) He needs the professor to sign his application for graduation.

(D) He does not have enough credits for graduation.

38. What does Professor Day decide to do?

(A) Enroll Mike in the class next year.

(B) Allow Mike to take the class this term.

(C) Give Mike permission to graduate without the class.

(D) Register Mike for another class.

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After each talk, you will hear some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Questions 39-42. Listen to a talk by a business instructor.

Today's lecture is about the effects of background music on employee performance and retail sales. As you know, every day millions of people in offices and factories around the world do their work to the accompaniment of background music, more commonly known as MUZAK. But did you know that MUZAK is more than a pleasant addition to the environment? Studies show that this seemingly innocent background music can be engineered to control behavior. In fact, MUZAK can improve employee performance by reducing stress, boredom, and fatigue. In one survey, overall productivity increased by thirty percent, although five to ten percent is the average.

The key to MUZAK's success is something called stimulus progression, which means quite simply that the background music starts with a slow, soft song that is low in stimulus value and builds up gradually to an upbeat song that is high in stimulus value. The fastest, loudest sounds are programmed for about ten-thirty in the morning, and two-thirty in the afternoon when people are generally starting to tire.

Besides employee performance, MUZAK can increase sales. In supermarkets, slow music can influence shoppers to walk slower and buy more. In restaurants, fast music can cause customers to eat quickly so that the same number of tables may be used to serve more people during peak times such as the lunch hour.

Narrator: 39. What is MUZAK?

(A) A slow, soft song.

(B) Music in restaurants.

(C) Background music.

(D) A pleasant addition to the environment.

40. What is the average increase in productivity when MUZAK is introduced?

(A) Thirteen percent.

(B) Five to ten percent.

(C) One hundred percent.

(D) Thirty percent.

41. What is stimulus progression?

(A) Background music that is low in stimulus value.

(B) Upbeat music that stimulates sales.

(C) Music engineered to reduce stress.

(D) Music that starts slow and gets faster at times of the day when people get tired.

42. How does MUZAK influence sales in supermarkets?

(A) It can cause shoppers to go through the line faster.

(B) It can cause shoppers to buy thirty per cent more or less.

(C) It can cause shoppers to walk slower and buy more.

(D) It does not influence sales.

Questions 43-46. Listen to a public service announcement.

Community College understands that everyone who wants to attend college will not be able to come to campus. So, as part of the Distance Learning Program, Community College offers a series of video telecourses to meet the needs of students who prefer to complete coursework in their homes, at their convenience.

These telecourses are regular college credit classes taught on video cassette tapes by a Community College professor. To use the materials for the course, you will need your own VHS type VCR player. Some telecourses will also be broadcast on KCC7-TV's "Sun-Up Semester." This program airs from six o'clock in the morning to seven-thirty, Monday through Friday, and a complete listing of courses is printed in your regular television guide.

To register for a telecourse, phone the Community College Distance Learning Program at 782-6394. The course syllabus, books, and videotapes will be available at the Community College bookstore. During the first week of classes, your instructor will contact you to discuss the course and answer any questions you might have about the course requirements. Then, throughout the rest of the semester, you can use either an 800 telephone number or an e-mail address to contact your instructor.

Narrator: 43. What is this announcement mainly about?

(A) The "Sun-Up Semester" program.

(B) The Community College campus.

(C) Video telecourses.

(D) Technology for distance learning.

44. Why does the speaker mention the "Sun-Up Semester"?

(A) To clarify how to register.

(B) To advertise the college.

(C) To provide a listing of courses.

(D) To give students an alternative to video tapes.

45. How can students register for a course?

(A) They should come to campus.

(B) They can call the Community College.

(C) They must contact the instructor.

(D) They can use computers.

46. How can students contact the instructor?

(A) By using e-mail.

(B) By calling KCC-TV.

(C) By writing letters.

(D) By making video tapes.

Questions 47-50. Listen to a talk by a college professor.

When Edward Sapir was teaching at Yale, Benjamin Lee Whorf enrolled in his class. Whorf was recognized for his investigations of the Hopi language, including his authorship of a grammar and a dictionary. Even in his early publications, it is clear that he was developing the theory that the very different grammar of Hopi might indicate a different manner of conceiving and perceiving the world on the part of the native speaker of Hopi.

In 1936, he wrote "An American Indian Model of the Universe," which explored the implications of the Hopi verb system with regard to the Hopi conception of space and time.

Whorf is probably best known for his article, "The Relation of Habitual Thought and Behavior to Language", and for the three articles that appeared in 1941 in the Technology Review.

In these articles, he proposed what he called the principle of "linguistic relativity", which states, at least as a hypothesis, that the grammar of a language influences the manner in which the speaker understands reality and behaves with respect to it.

Since the theory did not emerge until after Whorf had begun to study with Sapir, and since Sapir had most certainly shared in the development of the idea, it came to be called the Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis.

Narrator:

47. What central theme does the lecture examine?

(A) The relationship between language and culture.

(B) The culture of Hopi society.

(C) American Indian cultures.

(D) The life of Benjamin Lee Whorf.

48. Which language did Whrof use in his research?

(A) European languages.

(B) South American languages.

(C) American Indian languages.

(D) Computer languages.

49. According to the lecture, what is linguistic relativity?

(A) All languages are related.

(B) All American Indian languages are related.

(C) Language influences the manner in which an individual understands reality.

(D) Language and culture are not related.

50. What is another name for linguistic relativity?

(A) The Sapir Hypothesis.

(B) The Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis.

(C) The Sapir-Whorf-Boas Hypothesis.

(D) The American Indian Model of the Universe.

40 questions 25 minutes

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type.

Structure

Directions: Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.

1. Political demonstrations on American campuses have abated _________________

(A) after 1970

(B) in 1970

(C) for 1970

(D) since 1970

2. Ancient civilizations such as those of the Phoenicians and the Mesopotamians _____________ goods rather than use money.

(A) use to trade

(B) is used to trade

(C) used to trade

(D) was used to trade

3. Justice Sandra Day O'Connor was ___________ to serve on the U.S. Supreme Court.

(A) the woman who first

(B) the first woman

(C) who the first woman

(D) the first and a woman

4. North Carolina is well known not only for the Great Smoky Mountains National Park ____________ for the Cherokee Indian settlements.

(A) also

(B) and

(C) but also

(D) because of

5. General Grant had General Lee ____________ him at Appomattox to sign the official surrender of the Confederate forces.

(A) to meet

(B) met

(C) meet

(D) meeting

6. If a ruby is heated it ____________ temporarily lose its color.

(A) would

(B) will

(C) does

(D) has

7.____________ small specimen of the embryonic fluid is removed from a fetus, it will be possible to determine whether the baby will be born with birth defects.

(A) A

(B) That a

(C) If a

(D) When it is a

8. All of the people at the AAME conference are ____________ .

(A) mathematic teachers

(B) mathematics teachers

(C) mathematics teacher

(D) mathematic's teachers

9. To generate income, magazine publishers must decide whether to increase the subscription price or ____________ .

(A) to sell advertising

(B) if they should sell advertising

(C) selling advertising

(D) sold advertising

10. If it ____________ more humid in the desert of the Southwest, the hot temperatures would be unbearable.

(A) be

(B) is

(C) was

(D) were

11. ____________ Java Man, who lived before the first Ice Age, is the first manlike animal.

(A) It is generally believed that

(B) Generally believed it is

(C) Believed generally is

(D) That is generally believed

12. For the investor who ____________ money, silver or bonds are good options.

(A) has so little a

(B) has very little

(C) has so few

(D) has very few

13. ____________ both men and women have often achieved their career ambitions by midlife, many people are afflicted by at least a temporary period of dissatisfaction and depression.

(A) Because

(B) So

(C) A

(D) Who

14. Of all the cereals, rice is the one ____________ food for more people than any of the other grain crops.

(A) it provides

(B) that providing

(C) provides

(D) that provides

15. Travelers ____________ their reservations well in advance if they want to fly during the Christmas holidays.

(A) had better to get

(B) had to get better

(C) had better get

(D) had better got

Directions: In questions 16-40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

16. The duties of the secretary are_(A) to take_(B) the minutes, mailing_(C) the correspondence, and calling the members before meetings_(D).

17. If biennials were planted this year, they will be_(A) likely _(B) to bloom_(C) next year_(D).

18. The value of the dollar_(A) declines_(B) as_(C) the rate of inflation raises_(D).

19. Even though a member has drank_(A) too much_(B) the night before_(C), the counselors at Alcoholics Anonymous will try to convince_(D) him or her to sober up and stop drinking again.

20. Anthropologists assert that many of the early American Plains Indians did not engage in planting crops but_(A) to hunt_(B), living_(C) primarily_(D) on buffalo meat.

22. The differential attractions of the sun and the moon have_(A) a direct effect in_(B) the rising_(C) and falling of_(D) the tides.

23. With special enzymes that are call_(A) restriction enzymes, it is possibleto split off _(B) segments of DNA from_(C) the donor_(D) organism.

24. Before TV, the common man seldom never_(A) had_(B) the opportunity to see and hear_(C) his leaders express their_(D) views.

25. If_(A) it receives enough_(B) rain at the proper time, hay will grow_(C) quickly, as_(D) grass.

26. Psychology Today is_(A) interesting_(B), informative, and it is_(C) easy to read_(D) .

27. Before_(A) she died, Andrew Jackson's daughter, who_(B) lives_(C) in the family mansion, used to_(D) take tourists through her home.

28. It is essential that the temperature is not_(A) elevated to a point_(B) where the substance formed may become_(C) unstable and decompose into its_(D) constituent elements.

29. Two of the players_(A) from the Yankees has_(B) been chosen_(C)
to participate_(D) in the All Star game.

30. John Philip Sousa, who_(A) many_(B) people consider the greatest_(C) composer of marches, wrote his music during the era known as_(D) the Gay 90s.

31. Although it_(A) can be derived from_(B) oil, coal, and tar, kerosene is usually produced_(C) by refine_(D) it from petroleum.

32. Aeronomy is_(A) the study_(B) of the earth's_(C) upper atmosphere, which includes their_(D) composition, temperature, density, and chemical reactions.

33. The new model costs_(A) twice more than_(B) last_(C) year's_(D) model.

34. The purpose of_(A) the United Nations, broad speaking_(B) , is_(C) to maintain peace and security and to encourage_(D) respect for human rights.

35. Aging_(A) in most animals_(B) can be readily modified when they_(C) will limit_(D) caloric intake.

36. Even though_(A) Miss Alabama lost the beauty contest, she was_(B) still more prettier_(C) than_(D) the other girls in the Miss America pageant.

37. Although Congressional representatives and senators may serve an unlimited number of term_(A), the president is limited_(B) to two, for a total_(C) of eight years_(D).

38. Although we are concerned_(A) about the problem of energy sources, we must not_(B) fail recognizing_(C) the need for_(D) environmental protection.

39. Because of_(A) the movement of a glacier, the form _(B) of_(C) the Great Lakes was very slow_(D).

40. In_(A) 1776 to 1800, the population_(B) of the U.S. continued to rise_(C), reaching_(D) five million citizens by the turn of the century.

50 questions 55 minutes

Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of questions about it. For questions 1-50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

It has long been known that when exposed to light under suitable conditions of temperature and moisture, the green parts of plants use carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and release oxygen to it. These exchanges are the opposite of those that occur in respiration. The process is called photosynthesis. In photosynthesis, carbohydrates are synthesized from carbon dioxide and water by the chloroplasts of plant cells in the presence of light. In most plants, the water used in photosynthesis is absorbed from the soil by the roots and translocated through the xylem of the root and stem to the leaves. Except for the usually small percentage used in respiration, the oxygen released in the process diffuses out of the leaf into the atmosphere through the stomates. Oxygen is the product of the reaction. For each molecule of carbon dioxide used, one molecule of oxygen is released. A summary chemical equation for photosynthesis is:

As a result of this process, radiant energy from the sun is stored as chemical energy. In turn, the chemical energy is used to decompose carbon dioxide and water. The products of their decomposition are recombined into a new compound, which is successively built up into more and more complex substances. After many intermediate steps, sugar is produced. At the same time, a balance of gases is preserved in the atmosphere.

1. Which title best expresses the ideas in this passage?

(A) A Chemical Equation

(B) The Process of Photosynthesis

(C) The Parts of Vascular Plants

(D) The Production of Sugar

2. In photosynthesis, water

(A) must be present

(B) is produced in carbohydrates

(C) is stored as chemical energy

(D) interrupts the chemical reaction

3. Which process is the opposite of photosynthesis?

(A) Decomposition

(B) Synthesization

(C) Diffusion

(D) Respiration

4. The combination of carbon dioxide and water to form sugar results in an excess of

(A) water

(B) oxygen

(C) carbon

(D) chlorophyll

5. The word "stored" in line 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) retained

(B) converted

(C) discovered

(D) specified

6. In photosynthesis, energy from the sun is

(A) changed to chemical energy

(B) conducted from the xylem to the leaves of green plants

(C) not necessary to the process

(D) released one to one for each molecule of carbon dioxide used

7. The word "their" in line 15 refers to

(A) radiant energy and chemical energy

(B) carbon dioxide and water

(C) products

(D) complex substances

8. The word "successively" in line 15 is close in meaning to

(A) with effort

(B) in a sequence

(C) slowly

(D) carefully

9. Besides the manufacture of food for plants, what is another benefit of photosynthesis?

(A) It produces solar energy.

(B) It diffuses additional carbon dioxide into the air.

(C) It maintains a balance of gases in the atmosphere.

(D) It removes harmful gases from the air.

10. Which of the following is NOT true of the oxygen used in photosynthesis?

(A) Oxygen is absorbed by the roots.

(B) Oxygen is the product of photosynthesis:

(C) Oxygen is used in respiration.

(D) Oxygen is released into the atmosphere through the leaves.

Alfred Bemhard Nobel, a Swedish inventor and philanthropist, bequeathed most of his vast fortune in trust as a fund from which annual prizes could be awarded to individuals and organizations who had achieved the greatest benefit to humanity in a particular year. Originally, there were six classifications for outstanding contributions designated in Nobel's will including chemistry, physics, physiology or medicine, literature, and international peace.

The prizes are administered by the Nobel Foundation in Stockholm. In 1969, a prize for economics endowed by the Central Bank of Sweden was added. Candidates for the prizes must be nominated in writing by a qualified authority in the field of competition. Recipients in physics, chemistry, and economics are selected by the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences; in physiology or medicine by the Caroline Institute; in literature by the Swedish Academy; and in peace by the Norwegian Nobel Committee appointed by Norway's parliament. The prizes are usually presented in Stockholm on December 10, with the King of Sweden officiating, an appropriate tribute to Alfred Nobel on the anniversary of his death. Each one includes a gold medal, a diploma, and a cash award of about one million dollars.

11. What does this passage mainly discuss?

(A) Alfred Bemhard Nobel

(B) The Nobel prizes

(C) Great contributions to mankind

(D) Swedish philanthropy

12. Why were the prizes named for Alfred Bemhard Nobel?

(A) He left money in his will to establish a fund for the prizes.

(B) He won the first Nobel prize for his work in philanthropy.

(C) He is now living in Sweden.

(D) He serves as chairman of the committee to choose the recipients of the prizes.

13. How often are the Nobel prizes awarded?

(A) Five times a year

(B) Once a year

(C) Twice a year

(D) Once every two years

14. The word "outstanding" in line 4 could best be replaced by

(A) recent

(B) unusual

(C) established

(D) exceptional

15. The word "will" in line 4 refers to

(A) Nobel's wishes

(B) a legal document

(C) a future intention

(D) a free choice

16. A Nobel prize would NOT be given to

(A) an author who wrote a novel

(B) a doctor who discovered a vaccine

(C) a composer who wrote a symphony

(D) a diplomat who negotiated a peace settlement

17. The word "one" in line 13 refers to

(A) tribute

(B) anniversary

(C) prize

(D) candidate

18. Which individual or organization serves as administrator for the trust?

(A) The King of Sweden

(B) The Nobel Foundation

(C) The Central Bank of Sweden

(D) Swedish and Norwegian academies and institutes

19. The word "appropriate" in line 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) prestigious

(B) customary

(C) suitable

(D) transitory

20. Why are the awards presented on December 10?

(A) It is a tribute to the King of Sweden.

(B) Alfred Bemhard Nobel died on that day.

(C) That date was established in Alfred Nobel's will.

(D) The Central Bank of Sweden administers the trust.

Although stage plays have been set to music since the era of the ancient Greeks, when the dramas of Sophocles and Aeschylus were accompanied by lyres and flutes, the usually accepted date for the beginning of opera as we know it is 1600. As part of the celebration of the marriage of King Henry IV of France to the Italian aristocrat Maria de Medici, the Florentine composer Jacopo Peri produced his famous Euridice, generally considered to be the first opera. Following his example, a group of Italian musicians, poets, and noblemen called the Camerata began to revive the style of musical story that had been used in Greek tragedy. The Camerata took most of the plots for their operas from Greek and Roman history and mythology, writing librettos or dramas for music. They called their compositions opera in musica or musical works. It is from this phrase that the word "opera" is borrowed.

For several years, the center of opera was Florence, but gradually, during the baroque period, it spread throughout Italy. By the late 1600s, operas were being written and performed in Europe, especially in England, France, and Germany. But, for many years, the Italian opera was considered the ideal, and many non-Italian composers continued to use Italian librettos. The European form de-emphasized the dramatic aspect. New orchestral effects and even ballet were introduced under the guise of opera. Composers gave in to the demands of singers, writing many operas that were nothing more than a succession of brilliant tricks for the voice. Complicated arias, recitatives, and duets evolved. The aria, which is a long solo, may be compared to a song in which the characters express their thoughts and feelings. The recitative, which is also a solo, is a recitation set to music whose purpose is to continue the story line. The duet is a musical piece written for two voices which may serve the function of either an aria or a recitative.

21. This passage is a summary of

(A) opera in Italy

(B) the Camerata

(C) the development of opera

(D) Euridice

22. According to this passage, when did modern opera begin?

(A) In the time of the ancient Greeks

(B) In the fifteenth century

(C) At the beginning of the sixteenth century

(D) At the beginning of the seventeenth century

23. The word "it" in line 3 refers to

(A) opera

(B) date

(C) era

(D) music

24. According to the author, what did Jacopo Peri write?

(A) Greek tragedy

(B) The first opera

(C) The opera Maria de Medici

(D) The opera The Camerata

25. The author suggests that Euridice was produced

(A) in France

(B) originally by Sophocles and Aeschylus

(C) without much success

(D) for the wedding of King Henry IV

26. What was the Camerata?

(A) A group of Greek musicians

(B) Musicians who developed a new musical drama based upon Greek drama

(C) A style of music not known in Italy

(D) The name given to the court of King Henry IV

27. The word "revive" in line 7 could best be replaced by

(A) appreciate

(B) resume

(C) modify

(D) investigate

28. The word "plots" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A) locations

(B) instruments

(C) stories

(D) inspiration

29. From what did the term "opera" derive?

(A) Greek and Roman history and mythology

(B) Non-Italian composers

(C) The Italian phrase that means "musical works"

(D) The ideas of composer Jacopo Peri

30. Which of the following is an example of a solo?

(A) A recitative

(B) A duet

(C) An opera

(D) A lyre

According to the controversial sunspot theory, great storms on the surface of the sun hurl streams of solar particles into the atmosphere, causing a shift in the weather on earth.

A typical sunspot consists of a dark central umbra surrounded by a lighter penumbra of light and dark threads extending out from the center like the spokes of a wheel. Actually, the sunspots are cooler than the rest of the photosphere, which may account for their color. Typically, the temperature in a sunspot umbra is about 4000, whereas the temperature in a penumbra registers 5500 К, and the granules outside the spot are 6000 К.

Sunspots range in size from tiny granules to complex structures with areas stretching for billions of square miles. About 5 percent of the spots are large enough so that they can be seen without instruments; consequently, observations of sunspots have been recorded for several thousand years.

Sunspots have been observed in arrangements of one to more than one hundred spots, but they tend to occur in pairs. There is also a marked tendency for the two spots of a pair to have opposite magnetic polarities. Furthermore, the strength of the magnetic field associated with any given sunspot is closely related to the spot's size.

Although there is no theory that completely explains the nature and function of sunspots, several models attempt to relate the phenomenon to magnetic fields along the lines of longitude from the north and south poles of the sun.

31. What is the author's main purpose in the passage?

(A) To propose a theory to explain sunspots

(B) To describe the nature of sunspots

(C) To compare the umbra and the penumbra in sunspots

(D) To argue for the existence of magnetic fields in sunspots

32. The word "controversial" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) widely accepted

(B) open to debate

(C) just introduced

(D) very complicated

33. Solar particles are hurled into space by

(A) undetermined causes

(B) disturbances of wind

(C) small rivers on the surface of the sun

(D) changes in the earth's atmosphere

34. The word "particles" in line 2 refers to

(A) gas explosions in the atmosphere

(B) light rays from the sun

(C) liquid streams on the sun

(D) small pieces of matter from the sun

35. How can we describe matter from the sun that enters the earth's atmosphere?

(A) Very small

(B) Very hot

(C) Very bright

(D) Very hard

36. The sunspot theory is

(A) not considered very important

(B) widely accepted

(C) subject to disagreement

(D) relatively new

37. The word "they" in line 9 refers to

(A) structures

(B) spots

(C) miles

(D) granules

38. The word "consequently" in line 10 could best be replaced by

(A) as a result

(B) nevertheless

(C) without doubt

(D) in this way

39. In which configuration do sunspots usually occur?

(A) In one spot of varying size

(B) In a configuration of two spots

(C) In arrangements of one hundred or more spots

(D) In groups of several thousand spots

40. How are sunspots explained?

(A) Sunspots appear to be related to magnetic fields on the earth.

(B) Sunspots may be related to magnetic fields that follow longitudinal lines on the sun.

(C) Sunspots are explained by storms that occur on the earth.

(D) Sunspots have no theory or model to explain them.

Recent technological advances in manned and unmanned undersea vehicles along with breakthroughs in satellite technology and computer equipment have overcome some of the limitations of divers and diving equipment. Without a vehicle, divers often became sluggish and their mental concentration was limited. Because of undersea pressure that affected their speech organs, communication among divers was difficult or impossible. But today, most oceanographers make direct observations by means of instruments that are lowered into the ocean, from samples taken from the water, or from photographs made by orbiting satellites. Direct observations of the ocean floor are made not only by divers but also by deep-diving submarines and aerial photography. Some of the submarines can dive to depths of more than seven miles and cruise at depths of fifteen thousand feet. In addition, radio-equipped buoys can be operated by remote control in order to transmit information back to land-based laboratories, often via satellite. Particularly important are data about water temperature, currents and weather. Satellite photographs can show the distribution of sea ice, oil slicks, and cloud formations over the ocean. Maps created from satellite pictures can represent the temperature and the color of the ocean's surface, enabling researchers to study the ocean currents. Furthermore, computers help oceanographers to collect and analyze data from submarines and satellites. By creating a model of the ocean's movement and characteristics, scientists can predict the patterns and possible effects of the ocean on the environment.

Recently, many oceanographers have been relying more on satellites and computers than on research ships or even submarine vehicles because they can supply a greater range of information more quickly and more efficiently. Some of mankind's most serious problems, especially those concerning energy and food, may be solved with the help of observations made possible by this new technology.

41. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?

(A) Technological advances in oceanography

(B) Communication among divers

(C) Direct observation of the ocean floor

(D) Undersea vehicles

42. The word "sluggish" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) nervous

(B) confused

(C) slow moving

(D) very weak

43. Divers have had problems in communicating underwater because

(A) the pressure affected their speech organs

(B) the vehicles they used have not been perfected

(C) they did not pronounce clearly

(D) the water destroyed their speech organs

44. This passage suggests that the successful exploration of the ocean depends upon

(A) vehicles as well as divers

(B) radios that divers use to communicate

(C) controlling currents and the weather

(D) the limitations of diving equipment

45. Undersea vehicles

(A) are too small for a man to fit inside

(B) are very slow to respond

(C) have the same limitations that divers have

(D) make direct observations of the ocean floor

46. The word "cruise" in line 10 could best be replaced by

(A) travel at a constant speed

(B) function without problems

(C) stay in communication

(D) remain still

47. How is a radio-equipped buoy operated?

(A) By operators inside the vehicle in the part underwater

(B) By operators outside the vehicle on a ship

(C) By operators outside the vehicle on a diving platform

(D) By operators outside the vehicle in a laboratory on shore

48. Which of the following are NOT shown in satellite photographs?

(A) The temperature of the ocean's surface

(B) Cloud formations over the ocean

(C) A model of the ocean's movements

(D) The location of sea ice

49. The word "those" in line 22 refers to

(A) energy and food

(B) problems

(C) observations

(D) vehicles

50. According to the author, what are some of the problems the underwater studies may eventually resolve?

(A) Weather and temperature control

(B) Food and energy shortages

(C) Transportation and communication problems

(D) Overcrowding and housing problems